Instead of plug-in all numbers into Black-Scholes Model's formula, and crunch out a number which i have no confidence on, i will rather try the following "non-academic" model.
I will not use the Black-Scholes Model's formula, but its concepts are well-accepted.
The value of the warrant lies with market price of the company share. The share price within the maturity period lies on few factors
- Outstanding share growth by remaining 147 millions 2013 warrants and scrip dividend scheme annually
- Equity growth by dividend re-invested annually, retained profit and new fund from exercising of warrants
For simplicity, assume the following
- Earning yield flat throughout the maturity period, with dividend yield flat on 8%, and 6% are re-invested via scrip dividend annually
- The remaining 147 millions 2013 warrants are exercised by end of FY2012, thus bring in $47 millions into the equity
- PB ratio remain flat @ 1.2 throughout the maturity period
- Equity grows @ 10% throughout the maturity period, due to re-invested dividend and retained profit
So at end of FY2012, with new fund from 2013 warrants, the equity is $203 millions with 701 millions share outstanding, thus priced @ $0.39 with PB of 1.2
By the end of maturity period i.e. FY2017, the equity grows to $370 millions. The outstanding share grows to 938 millions share due to script dividend. Thus bring the market price of $0.47 with PB 1.2
2017 warrant's strike price $0.4, with current warrant priced at 7 cents, effectively need market price above $0.47 to be in the money.
I admitted that the model is over-simplified, but should be realistic.
IMO the value of the warrant should be within 5-6 cents to be reasonable
Any comments welcome.